IANAL - Every state has specific laws about this. In my state (it’s not the relevant state) the first question would be is there a contract between the tenant and the old landlord that was still valid at the time of … well, probably several events in this saga. Definitely the legal date of the foreclosure.
In a foreclosure a valid tenant contract may transfer to the new owner by law. In some states the contract survives several foreclosure events, such as the lender taking possession of the property and the subsequent sale by auction. Or – maybe it doesn’t in this case, which of course is a different path.
If a rent contract is expired or has gone to an indefinite month-to-month status, those are two other situations. And so on.
A list of questions to ask. Is there a contract, is it still in effect (might have expired and tenant continued there from habit which could be an implied legal contract), if the contract is from/with someone from out of state is it valid in tenant’s location, and so on and on …
I’m thinking the status of a contract between tenant and initial landlord might affect the legalities of taking the horses. But IANAL and don’t know.
All that said as context –
@FoxyFizz – In this case I’m guessing that there is not a contract that survived the foreclosure, or it would have been mentioned?
Do we know that for certain? I did not see it in the thread (could have missed it).
In any case, if there was some form of valid contract still in place at the time of the taking of the horses, nonetheless nothing stops certain people from just ignoring or violating a contract. It is up to the parties to purse such violations in court or through negotiation. Some people aren’t financially able to do that. Generally speaking. And as mentioned, ianal.