Can someone settle a barn debate for me, please?
Adequan dosage is described on the box as being “every four days.”
Does this to you mean that if I give a dose tomorrow (Thursday,) the next dose should be Sunday?
Or should it be Monday?
Can someone settle a barn debate for me, please?
Adequan dosage is described on the box as being “every four days.”
Does this to you mean that if I give a dose tomorrow (Thursday,) the next dose should be Sunday?
Or should it be Monday?
Monday. Sunday would only be 72 hours (3 days).
Above response is correct. The package insert describes the dosing. If injected on Thursday, you then count- Friday-1, Saturday-2, Sunday-3, Monday-4. Next injection due on Monday. Next injection following that would be Friday.
Thank you. I feel vindicated.
It does, but it is also confusing because it talks about 28 days (or at least it did last time I used it about six months ago), which does not work no matter how you count it.
Isn’t it 7 doses total, one every 4 days? So 7x4 = 28? What am I missing?
Mark it on your calendar.
There are seven doses, yes.
And there are four days between doses.
So there are six gaps of four (not seven) = 24 plus one day, so a total of 25 days.
Clearly the person who wrote the flier did the same thing.
Ah got it - they are probably considering the last 4 days as part of “treatment” but they are not actually relevant for the typical horse owner. I’m up to speed now, ty!
I am not sure how they can consider the three days after you give the last dose treatment.
Most likely someone did what you did - 7 x 4 = 28 so it is 28 days.
It is an easy mistake to make.
It is just confusing to the user when they mark it on their calendar and then do not have enough days.
From a drug development perspective the treatment interval is not just the day you are giving the drug, but the x number of days, weeks, or months after the dose to monitor for potential effects (either efficacy or adverse events). I’m just assuming someone determined 4 days was a clinically relevant amount of time for a single adequan dose, hence why the doses are given 4 days apart. Hence why someone would assume that last 4 days was part of the 7th dose’s “treatment” interval.
I’m not saying it makes sense from a consumer perspective, just speculating as to how they arrived there.
(I was not involved in adequan drug development and establishment of dosing/treatment intervals, so I’m just assuming here based on my experience in the industry.)
Thank you!