Of course, but, should they use illegal gained material to present a real person in a bad light, does that not expose them to liability for libel/slander? It’s different from saying, “Party X claimed that this happened.” It would be using the actual material on those recordings. I suppose they could say, “Party X claims to have recordings in which Party Y is heard plotting the murder of Party X.” But, I don’t see how they can use, verbatim, info from the recordings w/o exposing themselves IF those recordings were determined to be illegal.
It would be interesting to have someone opine on the legality/illegality of the recordings.
That’s not my question, though. And I actually don’t know that people get fired for something that, if they instituted a wrongful termination suit, the employer could not back up b/c the recording was not made legally. Do you have examples of that? Clubs are free to make their own rules. However, SS has an investigation and appeals process. If they, for example, banned MHG based on what’s on those tapes, and MHG said, prove it, and all they had for back up were illegal recordings, I don’t see that playing in SS’s favour at arbitration.
Solid point, but not germane to my questions.
Again, one is a COTH rules specific question: are people on here citing/quoting the recordings in order to disparage MHG accusing her of criminal activity and, thus, required to disclose their IRL identity? NB: This is being done exclusively by the people who were pushing that angle in the other thread. [This question is regardless of the legal status of the recordings.]
The other is court of law/defamation suit specific: If a party plays on a TV program audio that was illegal created, or quotes verbatim therefrom, or presents as text a transcript thereof, does that party expose themselves to liability b/c, in a suit arising from that action, they cannot use those illegal recordings to defend themselves in court from the defamation charge?